The chain allows us to take derivative of composition of two functions. It has the form
(f∘g)′(x)=f′(g(x))g′(x)
Intuitively, why should it be a product of the two function's individual derivatives?
We can answer that by looking at Taylor expansions.
If we wiggle x in g(x) we get
g(x+δ)≈g(x)+g′(x)δ
That means if we wiggle x by δ, f gets wiggled by g′(x)δ.
A function \f(y)\ would change in a very similar way if we wiggle y:
f(y+δ′)≈f(y)+f′(y)δ′
We replace δ′ by g′(x)δ because that is how much the "y" is perturbed if we perturb x by δ
Overall, we would get
f(g(x+δ))≈f(g(x))+f′(g(x))g′(x)δ
Decomposing a factorial into large factors
2 weeks ago
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